Preparing for the NCLEX exam can be a daunting task, but with the right resources and practice, you can approach it with confidence. This article provides a comprehensive set of 50 NCLEX questions, complete with answers and detailed explanations. These questions are categorized into three levels of difficulty: 10 easy, 20 difficult, and 20 very difficult. By working through these questions, you'll gain a deeper understanding of the types of questions you may encounter on the exam and the rationale behind each answer.
Easy NCLEX Questions
Question 1
What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?
- A) 90/60 mmHg
- B) 120/80 mmHg
- C) 140/90 mmHg
- D) 160/100 mmHg
Answer: B) 120/80 mmHg
Explanation: The normal blood pressure range for a healthy adult is typically around 120/80 mmHg. This value can vary slightly depending on individual health conditions, but it serves as a general guideline for normal blood pressure.
Question 2
Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the body?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin B12
- C) Vitamin C
- D) Vitamin D
Answer: D) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D is crucial for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without adequate vitamin D, the body cannot absorb calcium effectively, which can lead to bone disorders such as osteoporosis.
Question 3
What is the primary function of red blood cells?
- A) Fight infections
- B) Transport oxygen
- C) Clot blood
- D) Produce antibodies
Answer: B) Transport oxygen
Explanation: Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, a protein that binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues throughout the body. This is their primary function.
Question 4
Which organ is responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?
- A) Liver
- B) Heart
- C) Kidney
- D) Pancreas
Answer: C) Kidney
Explanation: The kidneys filter waste products from the blood and produce urine. They play a critical role in maintaining the body's fluid and electrolyte balance.
Question 5
What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?
- A) 8-12 breaths per minute
- B) 12-20 breaths per minute
- C) 20-28 breaths per minute
- D) 28-36 breaths per minute
Answer: B) 12-20 breaths per minute
Explanation: The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate respiratory distress or other health issues.
Question 6
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A) Hypernatremia
- B) Hypokalemia
- C) Hypercalcemia
- D) Hypomagnesemia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias because potassium is essential for maintaining normal electrical activity in the heart.
Question 7
What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a diabetic patient?
- A) Increase blood glucose levels
- B) Decrease blood glucose levels
- C) Increase blood pressure
- D) Decrease blood pressure
Answer: B) Decrease blood glucose levels
Explanation: Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, where it can be used for energy.
Question 8
Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating balance and coordination?
- A) Cerebrum
- B) Cerebellum
- C) Brainstem
- D) Hypothalamus
Answer: B) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and posture. It ensures smooth and balanced muscular activity.
Question 9
What is the primary action of diuretics?
- A) Increase blood pressure
- B) Decrease blood pressure
- C) Increase urine output
- D) Decrease urine output
Answer: C) Increase urine output
Explanation: Diuretics promote the excretion of water and electrolytes through urine, which can help reduce blood pressure and remove excess fluid from the body.
Question 10
Which type of immunity is provided by vaccinations?
- A) Passive immunity
- B) Active immunity
- C) Innate immunity
- D) Natural immunity
Answer: B) Active immunity
Explanation: Vaccinations stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, providing active immunity against specific pathogens.
Difficult NCLEX Questions
Question 11
A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A) Hyperkalemia
- B) Hypocalcemia
- C) Hypernatremia
- D) Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A) Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Chronic kidney disease can lead to hyperkalemia because the kidneys are less able to excrete potassium, resulting in its accumulation in the blood.
Question 12
Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics?
- A) Diarrhea
- B) Hypertension
- C) Constipation
- D) Tachycardia
Answer: C) Constipation
Explanation: Opioid analgesics often cause constipation due to their action on the gastrointestinal tract, slowing down peristalsis.
Question 13
What is the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a patient with hypertension?
- A) Increase heart rate
- B) Decrease heart rate
- C) Increase cardiac output
- D) Decrease cardiac output
Answer: B) Decrease heart rate
Explanation: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and the force of contraction, which lowers blood pressure and decreases cardiac workload.
Question 14
A patient with a history of heart failure presents with shortness of breath and edema. Which medication class is most likely to be prescribed?
- A) Anticoagulants
- B) Diuretics
- C) Antihistamines
- D) Antidepressants
Answer: B) Diuretics
Explanation: Diuretics help reduce fluid overload by increasing urine output, which can alleviate symptoms of heart failure such as shortness of breath and edema.
Question 15
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an overproduction of thyroid hormones?
- A) Hypothyroidism
- B) Hyperthyroidism
- C) Addison's disease
- D) Cushing's syndrome
Answer: B) Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, increased heart rate, and anxiety.
Question 16
A patient is receiving warfarin therapy. Which laboratory test is used to monitor the effectiveness of this medication?
- A) Complete blood count (CBC)
- B) Prothrombin time (PT/INR)
- C) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Answer: B) Prothrombin time (PT/INR)
Explanation: The PT/INR test measures how long it takes blood to clot and is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy to ensure they are within the therapeutic range.
Question 17
Which of the following is a symptom of hypoglycemia?
- A) Polyuria
- B) Polydipsia
- C) Diaphoresis
- D) Hyperphagia
Answer: C) Diaphoresis
Explanation: Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability.
Question 18
What is the primary action of ACE inhibitors in the treatment of hypertension?
- A) Increase blood volume
- B) Decrease blood volume
- C) Inhibit vasoconstriction
- D) Promote vasoconstriction
Answer: C) Inhibit vasoconstriction
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, thereby reducing blood pressure.
Question 19
Which of the following is a potential complication of immobility in hospitalized patients?
- A) Hypertension
- B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- C) Hyperglycemia
- D) Hyperkalemia
Answer: B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Explanation: Immobility can lead to venous stasis, increasing the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins, particularly in the legs.
Question 20
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. Which position is most likely to improve their breathing?
- A) Supine
- B) Prone
- C) Fowler's
- D) Trendelenburg
Answer: C) Fowler's
Explanation: Fowler's position, where the patient is seated upright, can help improve lung expansion and ease breathing in patients with COPD.
Very Difficult NCLEX Questions
Question 21
A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
- A) Myocardial infarction
- B) Stroke
- C) Heart failure
- D) Hypertension
Answer: B) Stroke
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation can lead to the formation of blood clots in the atria, which can travel to the brain and cause a stroke.
Question 22
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction?
- A) Administer oxygen
- B) Start an IV line
- C) Administer epinephrine
- D) Monitor vital signs
Answer: C) Administer epinephrine
Explanation: Administering epinephrine is the priority intervention in an anaphylactic reaction as it rapidly counteracts the severe allergic response.
Question 23
A patient with liver cirrhosis is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A) Hyperglycemia
- B) Hypokalemia
- C) Ascites
- D) Hypertension
Answer: C) Ascites
Explanation: Liver cirrhosis can lead to portal hypertension and fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, known as ascites.
Question 24
Which of the following is a common side effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy?
- A) Weight loss
- B) Osteoporosis
- C) Hypoglycemia
- D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Osteoporosis
Explanation: Long-term use of corticosteroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
Question 25
A patient with diabetes insipidus is likely to present with which of the following symptoms?
- A) Polyuria
- B) Oliguria
- C) Hyperglycemia
- D) Hypertension
Answer: A) Polyuria
Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination (polyuria) due to the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine.
Question 26
Which of the following is a symptom of left-sided heart failure?
- A) Peripheral edema
- B) Jugular vein distention
- C) Pulmonary congestion
- D) Hepatomegaly
Answer: C) Pulmonary congestion
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion due to the backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation.
Question 27
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A) Gastrointestinal bleeding
- B) Hyperkalemia
- C) Hypertension
- D) Constipation
Answer: A) Gastrointestinal bleeding
Explanation: Peptic ulcers can erode blood vessels in the stomach or duodenum, leading to gastrointestinal bleeding.
Question 28
Which of the following is a potential side effect of digoxin toxicity?
- A) Bradycardia
- B) Tachycardia
- C) Hypertension
- D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: A) Bradycardia
Explanation: Digoxin toxicity can cause bradycardia, as well as other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances.
Question 29
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism is at risk for which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
- C) Vitamin C
- D) Vitamin D
Answer: B) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Explanation: Chronic alcoholism can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can cause neurological disorders such as Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Question 30
Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthyroidism?
- A) Weight gain
- B) Bradycardia
- C) Heat intolerance
- D) Constipation
Answer: C) Heat intolerance
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, leading to symptoms such as heat intolerance, weight loss, and tachycardia.
Question 31
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A) Lower blood pressure
- B) Reduce cholesterol levels
- C) Prevent blood clots
- D) Increase heart rate
Answer: C) Prevent blood clots
Explanation: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clot formation and subsequent cardiovascular events.
Question 32
Which of the following is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome?
- A) Hypotension
- B) Moon face
- C) Weight loss
- D) Hyperpigmentation
Answer: B) Moon face
Explanation: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excessive cortisol production, leading to symptoms such as moon face, weight gain, and hypertension.
Question 33
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulant therapy. Which of the following is a potential complication of this treatment?
- A) Hypertension
- B) Bleeding
- C) Hyperkalemia
- D) Constipation
Answer: B) Bleeding
Explanation: Anticoagulant therapy increases the risk of bleeding due to its effect on the blood's clotting ability.
Question 34
Which of the following is a symptom of hypocalcemia?
- A) Muscle weakness
- B) Tetany
- C) Hyperreflexia
- D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Tetany
Explanation: Hypocalcemia can cause tetany, characterized by muscle spasms and cramps due to increased neuromuscular excitability.
Question 35
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a bronchodilator. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A) Reduce inflammation
- B) Increase mucus production
- C) Relax bronchial muscles
- D) Suppress cough
Answer: C) Relax bronchial muscles
Explanation: Bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making it easier to breathe during an asthma attack.
Question 36
Which of the following is a potential side effect of lithium therapy?
- A) Hypoglycemia
- B) Hyponatremia
- C) Hypercalcemia
- D) Hyperkalemia
Answer: B) Hyponatremia
Explanation: Lithium can cause hyponatremia by affecting the kidneys' ability to concentrate urine, leading to increased sodium loss.
Question 37
A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following is a common side effect of this medication?
- A) Dry cough
- B) Tachycardia
- C) Hyperglycemia
- D) Constipation
Answer: A) Dry cough
Explanation: ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent dry cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the respiratory tract.
Question 38
Which of the following is a symptom of Addison's disease?
- A) Hypertension
- B) Hyperglycemia
- C) Hyperpigmentation
- D) Weight gain
Answer: C) Hyperpigmentation
Explanation: Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
Question 39
A patient with a history of epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?
- A) Gingival hyperplasia
- B) Hypotension
- C) Hyperglycemia
- D) Bradycardia
Answer: A) Gingival hyperplasia
Explanation: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, as a side effect of long-term use.
Question 40
Which of the following is a symptom of hyperkalemia?
- A) Muscle cramps
- B) Bradycardia
- C) Tachycardia
- D) Constipation
Answer: B) Bradycardia
Explanation: Hyperkalemia can cause bradycardia and other cardiac arrhythmias due to its effect on cardiac muscle excitability.
Question 41
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A) Dilate bronchioles
- B) Reduce inflammation
- C) Increase mucus production
- D) Suppress cough
Answer: B) Reduce inflammation
Explanation: Corticosteroid inhalers help reduce airway inflammation, improving breathing and reducing the frequency of COPD exacerbations.
Question 42
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated hypertension?
- A) Hypoglycemia
- B) Stroke
- C) Hyperkalemia
- D) Constipation
Answer: B) Stroke
Explanation: Untreated hypertension can lead to damage to blood vessels, increasing the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
Question 43
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A) Increase sodium retention
- B) Decrease potassium excretion
- C) Increase blood pressure
- D) Decrease fluid retention
Answer: D) Decrease fluid retention
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention by promoting the excretion of sodium and water.
Question 44
Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
- A) Weight loss
- B) Tachycardia
- C) Cold intolerance
- D) Diarrhea
Answer: C) Cold intolerance
Explanation: Hypothyroidism slows metabolism, leading to symptoms such as cold intolerance, weight gain, and bradycardia.
Question 45
A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?
- A) Hepatotoxicity
- B) Hyperglycemia
- C) Hypertension
- D) Constipation
Answer: A) Hepatotoxicity
Explanation: Methotrexate can cause liver damage, making hepatotoxicity a potential side effect that requires monitoring.
Question 46
Which of the following is a symptom of hypercalcemia?
- A) Muscle spasms
- B) Polyuria
- C) Hypotension
- D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Polyuria
Explanation: Hypercalcemia can lead to polyuria due to the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine, resulting in increased urine output.
Question 47
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A) Increase white blood cell count
- B) Decrease blood pressure
- C) Increase red blood cell production
- D) Decrease potassium levels
Answer: C) Increase red blood cell production
Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, addressing anemia commonly associated with chronic kidney disease.
Question 48
Which of the following is a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A) Hypotension
- B) Neuropathy
- C) Hypercalcemia
- D) Constipation
Answer: B) Neuropathy
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus can lead to nerve damage, resulting in neuropathy, which is characterized by pain, tingling, or numbness in the extremities.
Question 49
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A) Increase gastric acid production
- B) Decrease gastric acid production
- C) Increase gastric motility
- D) Decrease gastric motility
Answer: B) Decrease gastric acid production
Explanation: PPIs reduce the production of gastric acid, promoting healing of the ulcer and alleviating symptoms.
Question 50
Which of the following is a symptom of metabolic acidosis?
- A) Hyperventilation
- B) Hypoventilation
- C) Hypertension
- D) Bradycardia
Answer: A) Hyperventilation
Explanation: Metabolic acidosis can lead to hyperventilation as the body attempts to compensate by expelling more carbon dioxide to increase blood pH.
By practicing these NCLEX questions, you can enhance your test-taking skills and deepen your understanding of key nursing concepts. Remember, thorough preparation and a calm mindset are essential for success on the NCLEX exam. Good luck!
